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Clinical Psychology
Multiple Choice Questions (Enter your answers on the enclosed answer sheet)
1. Private practitioners earn
a. considerably more than their colleagues in academia.
b. considerably less than their colleagues in academia.
c. about the same amount as their colleagues in academia.
d. about the same amount as their colleagues in academia when salaries are adjusted for the nine month academic year.
2. According to the text, the imbalance in the diversity of clinical psychologists
a. has changed dramatically in recent years.
b. has never been a significant issue.
c. must be addressed by quota systems in educational programs.
d. should begin to moderate as minority candidates work their way through the training “pipeline.”
3. “Evidence-Based Practices” are
a. interventions based on the best research currently available.
b. yet to be developed, however research is being planned.
c. theoretically possible, but not currently in use.
d. clinics whose programs are aimed at developing empirically supported treat- ments.
4. Some groups that have been quick to create lists of evidence-based psycho- toglca I interventions are
a. insurance companies.
b. specific groups within the APA.
c. colleges, universities and other educational institutions.
d. drug companies.
5. The training program style that is often referred to as the scientist-practioner model is called the
a. Boulder model.
b. Vail model.
c. Aspen model.
d. Denver model.
6. One of the most striking aspects about training programs for clinical psychol- ogists is
a. how similar they are to each other.
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b. how they all rely on the university setting.
c. the considerable variation that exists across training approaches ..
d. how they all value research equally.
7. The theorist who emphasized the quality of the client-therapist relationship and considered it to be based on empathic listening was
a. Carl Rogers.
b. Sigmund Freud.
c. Alfred Binet.
d. James Cattell.
8. The Behavioral approach led to
a. treatments for sexual disorders, substance abuse, and anxiety in the 1920’s
and 1930’s.
b. the development of experimental neuroses.
c. a move away from evaluating treatment effectiveness.
d. a belief that psychological problems were biological rather than learned.
9. The approach to treatment that emphasizes personal constructs as important determinants of human behavior is
a. behavior therapy.
b. Gestalt therapy.
c. cognitive therapy.
d. psychodynamic therapy.
10. As behavioral therapists accepted the importance of human cognitive pro- cesses in determining behavior and reactions
a. behavioral and cognitive therapies became much more distinct.
b. the traditional differences between the two approaches evaporated and were replaced by new, stronger theoretical differences.
c. cognitive and behavioral therapies began to merge and become an integrated approach.
d. none of the above, most behavior therapists still do not acknowledge the im- portance of cognitions.
11. The development of group therapies was facilitated by
a. a shortage of mental health personnel around the time of WWII.
b. a focus on testing which identified many people who needed therapy.
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c. the fact that only a few orientations developed group approaches.
d. their limitation to inpatient populations
12. Approaches to marital therapy were developed by therapists with which orien- tation?
a. humanistic
b. behaviorist
c. cogn itive-behaviorist
d. all of the above
13. Research on the biological influences on clinical psychology
a. has had only a very minor impact on clinical practice.
b. has provided clinicians greater understanding of the foundations of behavioral and mental processes.
c. has led to greater support for behaviorist approaches.
d. has fostered another split between psychiatry and psychology.
14. This type of validity is measured by evaluating how well an assessment fore casts events.
a. Content
b. Concurrent
c. Predictive
d. Construct
15. When it comes to clinical judgment, clinicians have a tendency to
a. overestimate the validity of clinical intuition.
b. overestimate the utility of statistical prediction.
c. rely mostly on new constructs and measures to inform their decisions.
d. be aware of the distortions and false beliefs that plague intuitive reasoning.
16. The usefulness of computer assessment
a. has been well established through many empirical studies.
b. has remained controversial.
c. lies in its avoidance of most significant ethical issues.
d. is related to its exclusion of the clinician from the diagnostic process.
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17. The breadth of an assessment device is referred to as its ; the
depth of an assessment device is called its _
a. fidelity; bandwidth
b. bandwidth; fidelity
c. reliability; criterion validity.
d. construct validity; test-retest reliability.
18. Which of the following clinicians would be likely to consider traditional as- sessment procedures dehumanizing and harmful to the quality of the client- clinician relationship?
a. Harold, a clinician trained by Carl Rogers.
b. Jamil, a psychodynamically oriented therapist.
c. Harriette, a clinician who utilizes Beck’s theories and protocols.
d. none of the above
19. The most important aspect to an assessment report is that
a. it be as thorough and complete as possible, regardless of how long it be comes.
b. it contain very detailed data and scores so others can understand all bases for the conclusions.
c. it conveys an adequate amount of information in language that is accessible to the consumers of the report.
d. it conveys clearly the theoretical orientation of the clinician, especially in the conclusions and recommendations.
20. Which of the following is a type of behavioral observation that is also the cor- nerstone for many group, psychodynamic, and humanistic treatments?
a. thought sampling
b. contrived observation
c. role-playing
d. self -mon itori ng
21. An often-used technique for demonstrating the problems with eye-witness ac- counts is having an accomplice enter a classroom, pretend to shoot the pro- fessor, then leave. The class members are then asked to describe the “gun man.” This is an example of
a. a virtual reality assessment.
b. a staged naturalistic event.
c. an unethical observational tool.
d. a role-playing test.
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22. Physiological measures
a. have been used less frequently since the advent of virtual reality assessments.
b. have been demonstrated to be useful in only a few instances.
c. are mainly used by individuals involved in law enforcement.
d. are being used more often as clinicians become involved in treatment of dis- orders with clear physiological components.
23. Virtual reality assessments
a. engage clients in the process, but do not carryover to real-world situations.
b. have not been developed to the point where they are helpful, but progress is being made.
c. may be better predictors of performance, in some cases, than reality-based tests.
d. have replaced role-playing assessments in most cases.
24. Behavioral Avoidance Tests (BAT’s)
a. are new procedures for inducing experimental neuroses.
b. are often used to assess overt anxiety.
c. have been demonstrated to be less useful that Behavioral Approach Tests.
d. were developed in the early 1900’s, but are rarely used today.
25. Which of the following accurately describes the relationship between task
complexity and interrater reliability?
a. As task complexity goes up, interrater reliability increases.
b. As task complexity decreases, interrater reliability increases.
c. As task complexity decreases, interrater reliability decreases.
d. There is no predictable relationship between task complexity and interrater reliability.
26. Values, interest and attitude assessment instruments remain in wide use, largely because
a. they have an exceptionally high reliability and validity.
b. they can be administered, scored and interpreted by almost anyone.
c. they can be used to stimulate personal and career exploration.
d. all of the above
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27. The pattern of behavioral and psychological characteristics by which a person can be compared with other people is a definition of
a. intelligence.
b. aptitudes.
c. personality.
d. values.
28. The two major types of personal ity tests are:
a. self-report and observational.
b. objective and projective.
c. intrapsychic and theory-driven.
d. empirical and analytical.
29. According to Walsh and Betz (2001), the is the most useful psycho-
logical test available for assessing the degree and nature of emotional upset.
a. Rorschach
b. MMPI-2
c. WAISIII
d. Beck Depression Inventory (B DI)
30. The hypothesis that states that an individual’s personality will influence how he or she responds to ambiguous stimuli is called
a. the projective hypothesis.
b. the triarchic theory.
c. the psychodynamic theory of response.
d. the “big five” trait hypothesis.
31. Training in the administration of which test was recently excluded from the curriculum recommendation for clinical training by the APA?
a. WAIS-III.
b. MMPI-2
c. Rorschach
d. Thematic Apperception Test
32. The extent to which tests can be used to specify treatment approaches or measure treatment outcomes is referred to as
a. treatment or clinical utility.
b. external or criterion validity.
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c. clinical efficacy.
d. psychotherapy/assessment integration
33. The atmosphere of the cl i n ical setti ng shou Id reflect
a. the needs of the client.
b. a safe and collaborative stance.
c. a sense of support for the client’s work.
d. all of the above
34. A common technique for developing insight is
a. encouraging catharsis.
b. direct confrontation of the client’s weaknesses.
c. interpretation of a client’s behavior to foster an understanding of errors of the past.
d. administering self-report measurements often over the course of treatment.
35. Catharsis, or the release of pent-up emotions in a safe environment,
a. is never appropriate in an outpatient therapeutic setting.
b. should be discouraged by the therapist.
c. is likely to make the client more frightened of certain emotions.
d. can help boost the client’s emotional strength if encouraged and supported appropriately.
36. The placebo effect, where positive expectations lead to an improvement in a client’s situation,
a. should be evidence that psychotherapy interventions really isn’t all that ben- eficial.
b. are unique to psychotherapy, and should be capitalized upon.
c. highlights the role that faith, hope and expectation for change contribute to therapeutic change.
d. cannot be manipulated, so they are not important to the therapeutic alliance.
37. It is important for a clients to experience some small successes early in the treatment process because
a. even small changes help reinforce their confidence in their ability to change.
b. then clients can believe that the therapist is all-powerful and therefore will stick with therapy.
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c. if the successes are too large in the beginning, clients might get discouraged if things slow down later in the process.
d. all of the above
38. Which of the following is not one of the “four horsemen” of professional eth- ics?
a. confidentiality
b. competency
c. conflict of interest
d. cari ng coherence
39. Which of the following would be a likely goal a person-centered therapist would set for his or her client?
a. improving interpersonal communication
b. increased satisfaction with work and play
c. the ability to love unconditionally
d. none of the above, person-centered therapists don’t set goals for their clients
40. When an empathic therapist tries to understand what it would be like to be his client, Rogers would say he is using a/an
a. internal frame of reference.
b. external frame of reference.
c. empathic congruence.
d. reflective stance.
41. The person-centered therapist’s primary responsibility is to
a. encourage the client to explore positive directions for growth.
b. provide an atmosphere in which the client is comfortable exploring thoughts and feelings.
c. truly like the client.
d. plan homework assignments that will encourage growth activities between sessions.
42. Congruence in person-centered therapy means
a. that the therapist must say whatever is on her mind.
b. that the therapist must maintain a professional facade so as not in influence the client’s understanding of his own feelings.
c. the therapist is genuine and reacts honestly to what the client says.
d. “going with the gut” in reacting to the material the client brings up.
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